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Re: Whether is the logic the absolute?

Hello, D. Mon, you wrote: DM> Outputs become exceptional by rules which we in this logic and set. The logic content as formal system just also consists in how we can build expressions and by what rules from them to receive other expressions. But whether there will be same rules with the same outputs as to work in other Universe? After all as a matter of fact the correctness of all logical system generally is checked by an only empirically human brain, and it not 100 % a warranty.

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Re: Whether is the logic the absolute?

Hello, T4r4sB, you wrote: TB> But whether there will be same rules with the same outputs as to work in other Universe? Logic laws by the nature are similar to formal grammar. Here there is at us a rule set - grammar of language of Si. By these rules foo it  the identifier, and 1a2s not . Whether someone can in other Universe, having in accuracy the same grammar of the same language of Si, to decide, what by rules of this language 1a2s it  the identifier? Or he conforms to the rules and receives the same output that we, or he simply does not conform to the rules, other answer, from the point of view of these logic/grammar the erratic does not work within the limits of the same logic, then for it. Thus the question of a correctness of logic as a whole is not put, as the attention to the question on a correctness of grammar of language of Si is not brought, it simply is, such what it set. It is possible to try to bring an attention to the question on completeness of any logic, and on its resolvability. And here Godel and Turing has the bad news to us, in many cases.

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Re: Whether is the logic the absolute?

DM> Thus the question of a correctness of logic as a whole is not put a logic Correctness proves to be true empirically.

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Re: Whether is the logic the absolute?

Hello, igor-booch, you wrote: IB> the logic Correctness proves to be true empirically. And what exactly it means? What is generally "a logic correctness", and how it is possible to confirm it empirically?

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Re: Whether is the logic the absolute?

Hello, qwertyuiop, you wrote: Q>>> Numbers do not depend on a head of the mathematician. They are identical, in whatever numeration system registered. A>> numbers exist only in a head as idea. Q> can be. But it is surprising that developing these ideas the person found out that all in the nature happens under laws which are described by those or other mathematical formulas. How it happens? The author: qwertyuiop Date: 13.05 19:09 It generally randomness. It is more probable that the mathematics does not change, but the Universe cannot be studied with the help of mathematics. That our Universe is not bad described with the help of mathematics means, or that to us carried or that this consequence of the probability theory, or that we know simply a little. A>> if to start to study the invented Universes with the strange laws it can appear that some of them quite could exist. Only anybody seriously will not be engaged in it. Q> well why. God - too invented concept, but it does not hinder some it to consider and write to the dissertation on theology. It is possible to write everything, to a science it has no relation.

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Re: Whether is the logic the absolute?

IB>> the logic Correctness proves to be true empirically. DM> and what exactly it means? What is generally "a logic correctness", and how it is possible to confirm it empirically? It is possible to invent many the formal systems more or less different from traditional logic. But it is invented and the traditional logic was widely adopted. "Practice - criterion of true". The given approach to concept of "correctness" certainly does not claim for any mathematical severity, but to philosophical reasonings can be applied. The given approach to a correctness has lacks. Probably if the wide circulation was received by other logic, the science and technics now was at more high level. Whether means it that this other logic is more correct?